So let's say that the entire world is index funds (plus the stocks they own). An index fund has "too much cash", so they buy stocks. Some other index fund sees that the price is attractive, and sells, but then that fund has too much cash.
But the funds each keep some amount (1%?) of their assets in cash. So isn't the net result that stock prices go up until the value of the stock is 99 times the amount of cash in the system?
More generally, then, doesn't the price of assets go up until the participants are comfortable with that much cash as part of their asset mix?
"(1) For every share of every asset in existence, someone must willingly hold that share at all times. If no one can be found who wants to hold a share, its market price will fall until someone is found.
(2) The total “amount” or “supply” of a financial asset is the total market value of it in existence: the number of shares outstanding times the market price. Asset “amount” or “supply” is therefore flexible for all assets except cash, whose market price is always unity. If there is more financial wealth that wants to be allocated into an asset than exists of that asset, the market price of each share of the asset will rise, which will expand the supply of the asset so that the demand can be satisfied."
"Money is not something that can go into or come out of assets; rather, it itself is an asset that is traded for other assets. The offered rate of exchange is the price. Changes in the price can create the perception that money is moving, but, in reality, nothing needs to be moving at all. Any movement that does occur is incidental to the underlying process.
Likewise, investors cannot leave or enter any asset class. All they can do is fight with each other over who will hold each asset class, offering to exchange money at various rates in exchange for the privilege of holding something else. The consequence of shifting preferences and exchange rates may be a destruction or creation of wealth in various places, but it is never a “movement” of wealth."
>> The total “amount” or “supply” of a financial asset is the total market value of it in existence: the number of shares outstanding times the market price.
Isn't this assuming 'mark to market' - the assumption that the entire supply of an asset class could be sold at the selling price of some (usually very small) fraction of the supply that has most recently been traded.
If my understanding is correct, this is the fallacy that has underpinned the inflated valuations of many crypto assets (SBF etc)
>Some other index fund sees that the price is attractive
Index funds do not have opinions on the attractiveness of prices. What happens in this hypothetical when one index fund has a cash inflow is that it bids on all the assets it is "short" of, which increases the price until the other index funds have "too much" of the now-higher-priced asset and decide to sell.
But generally speaking yes, there's cash or cash-equivalent in the overall market's mix, and it stays relatively constant. When these cash assets get dumped onto balance sheets, other assets get bid up until their sizes are appropriate for the amount of cash around.
Yes. Except there is also a group of people that sit on the side scamming everyone by building assets that promise to fit in the index but are just trash and return nothing.
But the funds each keep some amount (1%?) of their assets in cash. So isn't the net result that stock prices go up until the value of the stock is 99 times the amount of cash in the system?
More generally, then, doesn't the price of assets go up until the participants are comfortable with that much cash as part of their asset mix?