While the ICJ hasn’t concluded it is genocide, they have clearly contradicted the post I was responding to that said this does NOT fit the legal definition of genocide. If it didn’t fit, they would not have ordered israel to act to prevent acts of genocide.
If the irish don’t think it fits, why do they keep calling it a genocide?
They want to expand the definition of genocide to include blocking aid (already a war crime, and something israel is consistently doing). They want to do this not because they have any doubt that a genocide is occurring, but because the current definition makes it too easy for supporters of this genocide to sew doubt allowing the genocide to continue.
While the ICJ hasn’t concluded it is genocide, they have clearly contradicted the post I was responding to that said this does NOT fit the legal definition of genocide. If it didn’t fit, they would not have ordered israel to act to prevent acts of genocide.