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The German approach in my opinion does more to alleviate outcast-scale poverty.

I'd be curious how this actually plays out in practice.

In the US, we have a great document called the American Housing Survey. It breaks down what percentage of poor people (and non-poor people) own various goods - e.g., 75% of poor people own a car, 65% own a washing machine and 45% own their home.

http://www.census.gov/prod/2008pubs/h150-07.pdf

Do you know of a similar German document? It would provide some facts to support/dispute your opinion.




The key is that the basics are covered (like in most of Europe)

100% of poor people in Germany own a health insurance

0% own a house (you have to use up your own money first)

100% own a washing machine (paid for by the government)

50& own a car (my guess, but you dont really need it in big cities)


That's basically true, but simplified. We also have homeless people in Germany, who don't own a washing machine. To get the government welfare, you have to navigate some bureaucracy: it's not hard, but there are still people who can't or don't want to do that.

About the house: If your house is cheap enough, I am not sure whether you have to use it all up completely. (I heard that there's even the possibility under certain circumstances of the government helping you with mortgage payments instead of helping you pay for rent.)

In general, you can live of the government welfare and even raise kids. But you need some skills for that, and they aren't that different from the skills that make for basic employability.


Do you have actual stats on this, or are you guessing?

Also, access to financial services (e.g. health insurance) is irrelevant. Financial services are intermediary goods (like education or business suits) - irrelevant by themselves, but sometimes useful to get other things you really want.


Do you know of a similar German document?

http://dip21.bundestag.de/dip21/btd/16/099/1609915.pdf (German)

It's the best that I know of that is somewhat comparable. In there poverty is defined as proportion to the average income.

Listing what poor people own is propably meant as a measure of quality of life in the US-Census document. I think that is a valid measurement.

The German document measures this quality of life different: It uses social participation as factor.

From Wikipedia (2004):

I. Member of a political party

people underneath poverty-risk-line: 1.9 %

people above poverty-risk-line: 3.8 %

II. Member of union

people underneath poverty-risk-line: 5.3 %

people above poverty-risk-line: 14.2 %

III. Takes part in signature-collections

people underneath poverty-risk-line: 10.7 %

people above poverty-risk-line: 23.4 %

IV. Takes part in demonstrations

people underneath poverty-risk-line: 1.2 %

people above poverty-risk-line: 6.2 %

and in the document

There we might have another difference between our two countries? I think both approaches to measure quality of life are valid. I would go on an say, combined they would provide a much better result.

For instance, goods in Germany are often much more expensive. And in my opinion, this is due to heavier regulations that drive up costs. I already delay purchases of certain goods to my umpcoming US trips, because I know the low prices in the US will knock me out of my socks.

I should've elaborated on what I mean by "outcast-scale poverty" - that you're endangered by your poorness.




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