I understand you’re trying to strong man this. But I think we need to interrogate the premise here. How does “inequity” represent a “threat” to our “long term survival and prosperity?” What is the specific causal mechanism by which we expect that to happen?
It seems facially implausible to me, given that America became prosperous when these inequalities were much worse. Why do we accept this premise as a given?
> Research has generally linked economic inequality to political and social instability, including revolution, democratic breakdown and civil conflict.
It seems facially implausible to me, given that America became prosperous when these inequalities were much worse. Why do we accept this premise as a given?