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no, the addition of 'to me' makes it objectively clearer. unless you're intentionally being obtuse, right?



Sorry I'm confused - clearer to you?


clearly.


Thanks for clarifying - I usually assume that when someone makes a subjective claim about how something "seems" that the "to me" part is implied, obvious even, but I forgot where I was. By the way, do you have a peer reviewed study to back up your claims?




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