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Original comment said "all primes up to 37" which isn't correct there's no point where 37 is being used as an upper limit


I think that was an intuitive and imprecise way of expressing “median value”, so that 50% of primes are “up to 37”


Im going off what the article originally said:

"We see that 37 is the prime where roughly half of all numbers have something less than or equal to 37 as their first prime! So we’ve proven that 37 is the median second prime!"




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