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> Not only is that unconstitutional

While I do study relevant US laws as required in my job (requiring familiarity with how law operates in countries where we operate), I am not an American, but I do understand certain things with regards to the US constitution and relevant case laws.

The Congress originally meets only for a few months' time, usually less than 6 months. This is due to the reality of the time, where travel is slow and representatives only receive a comparable salary to most people. Thus, it is exactly empowered to delegate certain powers to the executive branch. As someone mentioned, the administrative law is a cornerstone law and yet it delegates many powers to the executive branch.

In fact, said law and many, many, many similar (federal) laws have been upheld constitutional in the Supreme Court. There are certain powers that only Congress can do, and cannot be delegated to the executive branch, but it is clearly laid out in the constitution what those are (notably spending). Now I said federal because in certain states, the legislature can only delegate in very narrow situations (usually only in cases where lives would be in danger or in the protection of properties and where a need of immediate response is demonstrated).

So I'm confused why are you saying that is unconstitutional, in fact American history shows a very different answer. If you think that should be not allowed, you're entitled to your own opinion. However unless I read it incorrectly, the constitution, even considering the various amendments, is unfortunately not aligned with your opinion.




> the constitution, even considering the various amendments, is unfortunately not aligned with your opinion.

Sure it is. Article I of the Constitution says that all legislative power shall be vested in Congress. That means anything that has the force of law--and all Federal regulations created by executive branch agencies under the current US regulatory regime have the force of law; you can be fined or jailed for violating them--has to be passed by Congress using the process described in Article I. So any Federal regulation that has not been passed by that process--i.e., every one of them--is unconstitutional.

The fact that current US jurisprudence disagrees with that statement just illustrates how far current US jurisprudence has diverged from what the Constitution actually says. The status of Federal regulations is by no means the only example: current US jurisprudence says that Congress can regulate farmers growing crops for their own personal use because of the Commerce Clause; and that a city government can use the eminent domain power to evict people from their homes and turn the property over to a private development corporation (that ends up never developing the land anyway), and that counts as a "public use" under the Fifth Amendment.




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