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Immigration to the USA and nation-building in France do seem like very different things, yes.

In France, the project of creating a French nation and a French people required taking a diversity of cultures and languages that already existed in the territory, and trying to standardize and unify them. This is what modern nationalism did in many parts of Europe.

The USA is a different kind of project, wherein people from Europe came to take over the continent from it's previous inhabitants, stamping out the various cultures and languages that were on this continent by displacing whole peoples, not by assimilating them. Initially there were different European groups that were also kind of fighting each other for power. Obviously the ones from England were the dominant power in creating the United States of America, but other European cultures existed on the continent for a while too, the Lone Star State in Texas actually had three official state langauges -- English, Spanish, and German (yup).

So, yeah, these were very different things. I'd start from the actual history in comparing them.

I guess the commonality is the end result of homogenizing culture and suppressing cultural diversity for the purposes of political power.




I suspect it's oversimplified to think of homogenization as being a topdown process driven by the quest for power. A lot of it can be bottom-up - as the article describes, parents deliberately chose to teach their children Swedish. The advantages of speaking the "bigger" language are obvious: it'll open a wider set of opportunities. That's why people all over Europe teach their children English. If anything, their states probably have an incentive to push French, German etc., but English opens doors.


> it'll open a wider set of opportunities.

Which in almost all cases are the result of top-down processes. You're arguing that individual adjustments to change are the agents of change.

English gives opportunity because of the colonial foundation created by English invasion being transferred to the US, due to their long-term Western military hegemony resulting from their distance from a destructive pair of European wars.

Of course, a lingua franca is good, but the cultural and professional domination is too much in my opinion. US culture is awful, but is heavily marketed and sold (and ironically is almost all of foreign manufacture due to the continuing trade deficit/strong dollar policy. US professional dominance is due to its corruption, lack of regulation and labor rights, military aggression providing and preserving new markets, and diplomatic aggression making it the gatekeeper to those markets.

The dominance of English is a result of that, just like the domination of Latin, Spanish, and French (or Arabic for that matter) were. It's something that's happening, not something to be supported.

edit:

> But the national government of Sweden is a different story. They currently consider Elfdalian a dialect of Swedish, not its own language.

> Speaking in Elfdalian, Swedish MP Peter Helander recently asked Parliament why that’s the case. But before Culture Minister Amanda Lind could answer the question, the parliamentary speaker interrupted them both to say that only Swedish may be spoken in the chamber. Helander said the "only Swedish" remark proves his point, that Elfdalian should be considered its own language.

I don't know how much more official a condemnation of a minority language can be.


I agree that some processes are top down. My point was just that the choice to learn a national or global language is often bottom up.

I think saying "US culture is awful" weakens your point. US culture is extremely diverse, from The Rock to Jeff Koons. It's also central to the twentieth century. Dismissing it all as awful doesn't make much sense.


I was pretty surprised when I went to parts of Texas where people still using German (alongside English of course).

It's a pity that Gresham's Law ended up making English almost ubiquitous, to the detriment of the many languages from all around the world. (I don't think I need to mention the many advantages that counterbalance this.)


> I guess the commonality is the end result of homogenizing culture and suppressing cultural diversity for the purposes of political power.

So the native population was obviously suppressed in a bid for political power, but were any other cultures oppressed into homogenizing for the purpose of solidifying someone’s political power? Did someone oppress the Germans to cause them to speak English, or did they assimilate for the obvious economic and social efficiencies? Homogenized culture is the result, but it’s not clear to me that it was nefarious in these cases.


For Texas Germans, some of A, some of B. Churches in central Texas towns with significant German-speaking populations commonly worshiped in German, and those towns had German-language newspapers up through the 1920s and 30s. The drop-off appears to have started around World War 1, and was pretty much complete by WW2. Some of my high school classmates (born ca. 1980) had German and/or Czech-speaking grandparents who grew up in the 20s and 30s, but tried raising their children as English speakers. Result: my classmates' parents could always understand Oma and Opa, but their grandchildren couldn’t, which was part of why German was an unusually popular foreign language option at my high school (the excellence of the long-time German teacher was the rest).


But (1) that’s just a regional phenomenon and (2) it doesn’t indicate any top-down pressure to convert to boost someone’s political power.


Short answer, it's "complicated" in that there are always multiple things going on at once, but... yes. And the ways it's "complicated" are weirder than you might think. Like that Germans were actually one of the least "assimilating" significant non-English European populations here in the 19th century. Actual histories often don't match our assumptions based on current ideologies.

Fighting Everything German in Texas, 1917–1919 https://www.jstor.org/stable/24449071

"…World War I not only intensified fears that the "melting pot" was failing, but also broadened this concern to include German Americans as a suspect ethnic group. Before the war, German Americans were one of the most respected immigrant groups in America, having achieved success in many spheres. Brewery magnate Adolf Busch, intellectual and U.S. Senator Carl Schulz, and financier John D. Rockefeller were among the German Americans who had risen to prominence in the United States. Significantly, German Americans acquired their favorable reputation despite being the ethnic group most resistant to assimilation…"

"…Furthermore, Texans’ historic distrust of German Texans helped inspire anti-German activities. During the antebellum period, slaveholders had viewed German Texans with suspicion, especially after an 1854 convention of German Texans adopted an anti-slavery resolution. In fact, only a minority of German Texans supported this resolution, but most Texans did not understand that subtlety. They were preoccupied with German Texans’ common culture which prevented them from discerning political, religious, and social differences among Germans…"

"…Claiming that German Texans’ ethnicity was equivalent to disloyalty, many council of defense members in Texas were determined to purge all traces of German culture from their state…"

(DOI: 10.1111/j.1540-6563.1994.tb00925.x for your sci-hub needs...)

But my main point is that these are very different situations -- national projects in Europe unifying/homogenizing various long-existed local geographically-specific cultures (I'm not sure 'assimilation' is even the right word here). Vs America, where various European populations came, only in the last few hundred years, displaced local geographically-specific cultures, and then competed with each other for political power or cultural hegemony as they expanded to take land the previous occupants were displaced from, also sometimes forming communities together (in which they were all newcomers to the land). Just two very different situations; although i tried to say there were some commonalities in the way cultures are homogenized/unified, I am sympathetic to the idea that "why are you even looking for commonalities these are such different situations".

I think we often over-simplify the diversity of historical paths with this stuff, assuming that the way we now look at "culture" or "nationality" or "race" has always been the way people did, and/or was inevitable. But these things were built, in the not too recent past, and didn't work the same way they work now even in recent history, and worked differently in different places.


WRT Germans in Texas, that’s highly regional—I don’t know that it generalizes broadly to America. It also doesn’t demonstrate a top-down pressure to assimilate in order to build up another group’s political power, but rather an overblown fear that German-Americans (I am German-American, for the record) had conflicting interests.

I’m not trying to “gotcha” you, but “pressure to assimilate in order to grow someone’s political power” doesn’t sound like an accurate characterization of American history as I understand it.


We were talking about Texas, I brought up Germans in Texas and you responded to that -- so I found an article about the history in Texas. I can find other articles from other parts of the U.S., but at this point I feel like you've shown whatever I find, I think you have your mind made up about, as you say, "American history as you understand it", and are uninterested in historical evidence that might complicate that.

As I understand it, the history is more diverse and complicated than you understand it. I shared one source to that end, you dismissed it because it didn't match your preferred narrative.

But again, my main point was not that one sentance.


My issue is that your example doesn’t actually support the thesis (see my previous post). So if you can’t produce an example that supports your thesis then it’s going to be hard to persuade just about anyone.


There was certainly a great amount of pressure against German during and following WWI. As an example of the sort of public sentiment at that time, the artist Grant Wood (famous for American Gothic) even had a spat with the Daughters of the American Revolution a decade after the war:

> In 1927, Wood was commissioned to create a stained glass window in the Veterans Memorial Coliseum in Cedar Rapids, Iowa. Unhappy with the quality of domestic glass sources, he used glass made in Germany. The local chapter of the Daughters of the American Revolution (DAR) complained about the use of a German source for a World War I memorial, as Germany had been an enemy of the US in that war. They expressed a lingering anti-German sentiment in society, and other people in Cedar Rapids also protested the German source. As a result, the window was not dedicated until 1955.[2]

> Wood was said to have described the DAR as "those Tory gals" and "people who are trying to set up an aristocracy of birth in a Republic."[3] Five years later Wood painted Daughters of Revolution, which he described as his only satire. He emphasized the contrast of three aged women in faded dresses framed against the heroic painting of Washington Crossing the Delaware, which, ironically, was painted in Germany by the German-American artist Emanuel Leutze.[1] Wood depicted his mother's clothing on the models, including a lace collar and amber pin he bought for her in Germany.[4]

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Daughters_of_Revolution

German names became anglicised, German newspapers disappeared, and German stopped being taught in schools.

Whether German would have survived without this sort of persecution is not really knowable, but it did happen.


Sure there was anti-German sentiment, but it doesn’t appear to be for the alleged purpose of improving another group’s political power. It’s also not clear to me how widespread this anti-German sentiment was (was it limited to nationalist instituions)? I hail from ~45 minutes away from Cedar Rapids from German stock on both sides (immigrated around the 1850s) in an area that is very German (lots of Weber’s, Becker’s, Youngblut’s, Vogel’s, etc) and I’ve never heard anything about people feeling compelled to forget their native language. Rather the sentiment I’ve heard was always that they just wanted to integrate into their new society. Obviously we’re both dealing in anecdotes, and I’m not trying to disprove yours, but rather understand how both fit in the larger historical narrative.


A useful comparison may be to Spanish in the United States today.

As for how widespread this was, some examples at the time included a lynching of a German seeking naturalisation:

> One such death of note was that of Robert Prager, a German seeking naturalization in St. Louis, Missouri who was accused on the night of April 14, 1914, of being a German spy by a mob of 300 "men and boys" after he had allegedly shared words at a socialist meeting earlier that evening. The jail where he had taken refuge from the crowds was quickly overrun and being stripped of his clothes, he was led down Main Street with a rope tied around his neck, and was forced to walk the route, and with shattered glass bottles being thrown down in his walking path, he was forced to sing patriotic songs. He was forced during this walk to kiss an American flag which had been wrapped around him. He was walked to a hanging tree at the edge of town where he was lynched. In an article from The St. Louis Global-Democrat, it was reported that there had been multiple incidences of mobs tarring and feathering individuals.

Note that this was prior to US entry into World War I.

Language bans:

> Language use had also been the primary focus of legislation at state and local levels. Some of these regulations included the publication of charters banning speaking German within city limits. A total ban on the teaching of German in both public and private education could be found in at minimum 14 states including ome states would extend this to ban the teaching of all languages except for english, although the majority who would ban non-english languages typically only banned German. A total ban on teaching German in both public and private schools was imposed for a time in at least 14 states, including California, Indiana,[11] Wisconsin,[12] Ohio, Iowa and Nebraska. California's ban lasted into the mid-1920s. The Supreme Court case in Meyer v. Nebraska ruled in 1923 that these laws were unconstitutional.[13]In October 1918, a bill intended to restrict federal funds towards states that enforced English-only education was created. On April 9, 1919, Nebraska enacted a statute called "An act relating to the teaching of foreign languages in the state of Nebraska," commonly known as the Siman Act. It provided that "No person, individually or as a teacher, shall, in any private, denominational, parochial or public school, teach any subject to any person in any language other than the English language." It forbade foreign instruction to children who had not completed the eighth grade.I n Montana, speaking German was banned in public for two years during World War I.[14] Pennsylvania's legislature passed a German-language ban, but it was vetoed by the governor. Churches during this period such as the Lutheran Church became internally divided over services and religious instruction in German and English.[15]

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German_language_in_the_United_...

In Iowa in particular:

> Harding's proclamation codified four rules for the state. First, Iowa schools - public, parochial and private - could only teach in English. Second, public conversations, including on trains and over the telephone, must be in English. Third, speeches or public addresses could only be given in English. Fourth, churches cannot conduct public worship services in any language other than English. We know this proclamation today as the Babel Proclamation.

https://www.thegazette.com/guest-columnists/a-century-ago-io...




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