Why do the specific findings of damages and penalties matter here? There was more than one case and they intertwined and resolved in not-so-obvious ways. I'd say it's naive or simplistic to ask "What exactly was the penalty?" the same way it would be to ask about the end result of IBM's antitrust case (13yrs, dropped). Does that mean there weren't any penalties?
One of Microsoft's results was that they were found guilty of monopolistic practices and that will never go away, even though the larger case wound up being settled (as is standard when a rich and/or powerful defendant is going to be found guilty). That their hand was in the cookie jar is a fact of public record.
While many decry the settlement itself, it's also important to look to history for the circumstances of the agreement: it was hashed out in the weeks following the 9-11 attacks. You take your eye off the ball and some scumbag is going to take it, in this case Microsoft and the Bush DOJ workers shaping the agreement.
One of Microsoft's results was that they were found guilty of monopolistic practices and that will never go away, even though the larger case wound up being settled (as is standard when a rich and/or powerful defendant is going to be found guilty). That their hand was in the cookie jar is a fact of public record.
While many decry the settlement itself, it's also important to look to history for the circumstances of the agreement: it was hashed out in the weeks following the 9-11 attacks. You take your eye off the ball and some scumbag is going to take it, in this case Microsoft and the Bush DOJ workers shaping the agreement.